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Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

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CelticRambler
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#51

Post by CelticRambler »

Memento Mori wrote: Sat Dec 18, 2021 12:54 pm So I guess the question is this, how can we make collective moral and ethical decisions if we are not all playing by the same rulebook?
That is, indeed, a question for our time, where the last half century has seen (especially in Ireland, but throughout most of the White West) a collective tearing up of the rulebook in favour of mé-féin-ism. Even the word "nationalist" - or "nationalism" - has been endowed with negative overtones, when the idea of nationhood is a shared identity borne out of following a set of accepted, collective rules.

I would not be so much concerned by the existence or otherwise of "objective values" as what I see as the gradual loss of - even open hostility towards - a common culture, "warts and all".
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#52

Post by Memento Mori »

CelticRambler wrote: Sat Dec 18, 2021 3:06 pm That is, indeed, a question for our time, where the last half century has seen (especially in Ireland, but throughout most of the White West) a collective tearing up of the rulebook in favour of mé-féin-ism. Even the word "nationalist" - or "nationalism" - has been endowed with negative overtones, when the idea of nationhood is a shared identity borne out of following a set of accepted, collective rules.

I would not be so much concerned by the existence or otherwise of "objective values" as what I see as the gradual loss of - even open hostility towards - a common culture, "warts and all".
Is there not a concern as to what this "common culture" is or could be? We could have a shared identity, a common culture, with a set of accepted, collective rules, but it could be one that is evil, as has happened before. In the absence of objective value, there are no rails.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#53

Post by Peregrinus »

Memento Mori wrote: Sat Dec 18, 2021 12:54 pm The traditional position would be that these decisions are made with reference to the natural law, and hence there are "no-go" areas as they are simply wrong. If the Irish people voted to exterminate the traveller community I am sure we here would say that this "ethical decision" position is wrong and thus invalid.

So I guess the question is this, how can we make collective moral and ethical decisions if we are not all playing by the same rulebook?
That is indeed the question, but it is the question whether or not we think there is an objective moral truth.

Suppose you and I both believe that there is objective moral truth. I believe that it is objectively morally true that there is an imperative of respect for human dignity and that it requires that we protect, or at least refrain from attacking, the human person from the moment of its conception; therefore the law should not permit abortion. You believe that it is objectively morally true that there is an imperative of respect for human dignity and that it requires that we protect, or at least refrain from attacking, the autonomy of action of the human person with respect to their own body; therefore the law should not restrict abortion.

You see the problem? We both agree that there is objective moral truth but we don't agree on what that truth is. And yet the question of what the law should or should not permit is one of those that can only be answered collectively. So we need a mechanism for making a collective decision in circumstances where we are in disagreement on the moral question. The fact that we both believe in objective moral truth doesn't avoid this dilemma, and it doesn't do much to help resolve it.

On edit: In fact, it occurs to me that a shared belief in objective moral truth may make it more difficult for us to make collective moral judgments. If you and I believe different and inconsistent things, but we are both convinced that our respective beliefs are objectively true, that makes it more difficult for either of us to seek any kind of compromise with the other's view, since we must both believe that such a compromise would be objectively false.

The abortion debate is perhaps a good illustration of this problem. In the Anglosphere it seems to be conducted between two sides, each of which frames its position in terms of fundamental moral absolutes, and each of which proceeds on the assumption that its fundamental position must be taken to be correct, and refuses to contemplate the possibility that it may not be. The result is a sterile debate in which two sides talk past one another, and wildly erratic policy proposals which tend to gravitate towards extremist positions on one side or the other. Somehow in mainland European countries they seem to have avoided this toxicity by finding a different basis for the policy discussion.
Last edited by Peregrinus on Tue Dec 21, 2021 6:09 am, edited 3 times in total.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#54

Post by Peregrinus »

CelticRambler wrote: Sat Dec 18, 2021 3:06 pm That is, indeed, a question for our time, where the last half century has seen (especially in Ireland, but throughout most of the White West) a collective tearing up of the rulebook in favour of mé-féin-ism. Even the word "nationalist" - or "nationalism" - has been endowed with negative overtones, when the idea of nationhood is a shared identity borne out of following a set of accepted, collective rules.
I don't think nationhood has anything to do with following a set of accepted, collective rules. Nationhood involves shared history, culture, experience, place, but I haven't seen any account of it that involves shared rules. If a nation had to follow shared rules then a nation that didn't enjoy political autonomy, and so couldn't set common rules, would be not a nation at all, which is absurd. The whole point of political nationalism is that the nation precedes the state; it doesn't emerge from it.
CelticRambler wrote: Sat Dec 18, 2021 3:06 pmI would not be so much concerned by the existence or otherwise of "objective values" as what I see as the gradual loss of - even open hostility towards - a common culture, "warts and all".
Well, I don't know about common culture, but making collective ethical decisions is certainly easier if we have common ethical values and principles. And I agree with you that this is more important than whether we believe those common principles to have objective truth, or simply to be the principles that we can agree on for the time being.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#55

Post by CelticRambler »

Peregrinus wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 1:26 am I don't think nationhood has anything to do with following a set of accepted, collective rules. Nationhood involves shared history, culture, experience, place, but I haven't seen any account of it that involves shared rules. If a nation had to follow shared rules then a nation that didn't enjoy political autonomy, and so couldn't set common rules, would be not a nation at all, which is absurd.
:?: Doesn't a "shared history, culture, experience, place" inherently derive from having a set of accepted, collective rules? Sure, some of these would be imposed by a wannabee king in a "my house, my rules" kind of way), but at some point as the kingdom grows there has to be collective acquiescence to the rules, to the experience that that creates and the history that arises therefrom. However big the kingdom/nation might eventually become, the starting point is still going to be one man (or woman) with an unshakeable belief in an objective truth of some sort.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#56

Post by isha »

CelticRambler wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:03 am :?: Doesn't a "shared history, culture, experience, place" inherently derive from having a set of accepted, collective rules? Sure, some of these would be imposed by a wannabee king in a "my house, my rules" kind of way), but at some point as the kingdom grows there has to be collective acquiescence to the rules, to the experience that that creates and the history that arises therefrom. However big the kingdom/nation might eventually become, the starting point is still going to be one man (or woman) with an unshakeable belief in an objective truth of some sort.
While some kind of personal fiefdoms or monarchy is present from the beginning of many nations, those nations have often / usually evolved into elected democracies and left kings and chieftains behind, and some nations have started as democracies. So there has not always been one central imposer of rules aka the king or queen's 'objective truth'.
Thinking out loud, and trying to be occasionally less wrong...
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#57

Post by Memento Mori »

Peregrinus wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 1:18 am That is indeed the question, but it is the question whether or not we think there is an objective moral truth.

Suppose you and I both believe that there is objective moral truth. I believe that it is objectively morally true that there is an imperative of respect for human dignity and that it requires that we protect, or at least refrain from attacking, the human person from the moment of its conception; therefore the law should not permit abortion. You believe that it is objectively morally true that there is an imperative of respect for human dignity and that it requires that we protect, or at least refrain from attacking, the autonomy of action of the human person with respect to their own body; therefore the law should not restrict abortion.

You see the problem? We both agree that there is objective moral truth but we don't agree on what that truth is. And yet the question of what the law should or should not permit is one of those that can only be answered collectively. So we need a mechanism for making a collective decision in circumstances where we are in disagreement on the moral question. The fact that we both believe in objective moral truth doesn't avoid this dilemma, and it doesn't do much to help resolve it.
Two people, who agree there is an ultimately objectively correct answer to a question, are more likely to find the answer than two people who fundamentally deny that there can be an answer at all. As I said previously, in that scenario the debate is a noble endeavor in search of the truth - debate on issues in this way important - not all are as heated as the right to life. The first two people also have a greater justification, in their own mind and in that of those who share their understanding, for advocating that people should be subject, in laws and custom, to the outcome.

In the absence of objective value, all you have left to go on is the force you can bring to bear and/or the popularity of the idea you happen to champion. Force and popularity is all you have to justify what by your (not you personally) definition is essentially a whim.

I don't think it is helpful to apply this debate to hot button examples as it may distract us, but to continue in the abstract, many on one side of debates like the one you cite are those who would deny objective value. Yet in practice, they act as if their ideas are objectively correct, even though their philosophical position is that they cannot be. You would think that their position would lead to a somewhat limp, undecided, or "who cares" position on moral and legal questions, but that is not so, it is the opposite in fact.

We do need a method for collective decision-making, but we need one which is subject to the minimum limits necessary to ensure that "wrong" answers are not reached. The concept of human rights is part of an attempt to do this, but when the concrete foundation of human rights - the idea that they are objectively true and inherent to man by virtue of the fact of his humanity and cannot be taken away - is replaced with one of sand that says they should only apply at a moment in time because people happen to believe they should (the implication being that this is subject to constant flux) then this fails. The Western view of morality, rights etc. is fundamentally based, in practice, on Judeo and particularly Christian principles. This is not to say that Christian teaching is followed, but rather that the framework and thought process is still being used. However this is being undermined in the manner which I have detailed, and in time the contradictions will cause it to totally collapse (perhaps not forever), to be replaced by what?

In practice, (even if it is said otherwise) all these debates run on the fumes and framework of the idea that there is an objectively correct answer to these questions because this is the way it has been done for several thousand years. Without a philosophy that supports this framework it will collapse, as it has already in some areas. This is a central point I would make in response to the question of "in practice does the existence of objective value matter?". I think it most definitely does in all circumstances, but the "damage" of its denial is limited by the aforementioned framework, and will be amplified many-fold when that disappears.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#58

Post by Memento Mori »

isha wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:56 am While some kind of personal fiefdoms or monarchy is present from the beginning of many nations, those nations have often / usually evolved into elected democracies and left kings and chieftains behind, and some nations have started as democracies. So there has not always been one central imposer of rules aka the king or queen's 'objective truth'.
Rulers, in modern millennia at least, have more often embodied the culture and view of the populace than imposed outright their own vision. Hence "divine right" of kings and such.

Although that could be different in the future, we may well see the Übermensch.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#59

Post by Peregrinus »

CelticRambler wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:03 am :?: Doesn't a "shared history, culture, experience, place" inherently derive from having a set of accepted, collective rules? Sure, some of these would be imposed by a wannabee king in a "my house, my rules" kind of way), but at some point as the kingdom grows there has to be collective acquiescence to the rules, to the experience that that creates and the history that arises therefrom . . .
No, not at all. If state A conquers states B, C and D and imposes its rules on them, does this mean that A, B, C and D now constitute a single nation? Irish nationalists would say emphatically that no, it does not; Ireland was a nation even when it was incorporated as part of the UK and, indeed, it is the very fact that it was a separate nation that legitimised its claim to independence. The Poles, the Hungarians, the Greeks etc would all say the same. Conversely Germany and Italy were nations even when divided into multiple different states with different rules, and it was the fact that they were nations that, for a nationalist, created the imperative to establish a singe national state for each of them.

A communit of people doesn't become a nation because it is comprised within a single state. Rather, a community that is a nation because of shared languagle, culture, history, experience, place, etc has a right to self-determination and therefore has the right to establish a state for itself. The common rules are the culmination of this process, not the foundation for it.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#60

Post by Peregrinus »

Memento Mori wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:58 am Two people, who agree there is an ultimately objectively correct answer to a question, are more likely to find the answer than two people who fundamentally deny that there can be an answer at all . . .
Pretty much the entire history of Europe in the seventeenth century suggests otherwise. Indeed, what brought the wars of religion to an end was (a) a recognition that people who agree there is an ultimately objectively correct answer to a question often don’t and can’t agree on what that answer is, and (b) a weary acceptance of the secular principal that people who believe in different answers must each be allowed to live according to their beliefs.
Memento Mori wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:58 amIn the absence of objective value, all you have left to go on is the force you can bring to bear and/or the popularity of the idea you happen to champion. Force and popularity is all you have to justify what by your (not you personally) definition is essentially a whim.
You’re overlooking persuasion, appeals to reason, appeals to empathy, appeals to experience, etc. Ethical discourse does take place between people of differing views, and people do sometimes change their views. Attempting to change people’s views by force, however, rarely succeeds.

I suppose you can say that, in a democracy, all these things are ultimately a reliance on popularity - you try to change people’s views about some issue so that a majority will support the policy you favour. But that would still be your aim if you were trying to change people’s views by persuading them that your view was objectively correct. You would still be hoping to persuade enough people of this to make your preferred policy electorally popular.
Memento Mori wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:58 amI don't think it is helpful to apply this debate to hot button examples as it may distract us, but to continue in the abstract, many on one side of debates like the one you cite are those who would deny objective value. Yet in practice, they act as if their ideas are objectively correct, even though their philosophical position is that they cannot be. You would think that their position would lead to a somewhat limp, undecided, or "who cares" position on moral and legal questions, but that is not so, it is the opposite in fact.
The opposite is indeed the case. The error you are pointing at here is the assumption that, if people doubt or deny the reality of objective moral truth, they must therefore think that moral questions are unimportant. They clearly do not think that; nor is it the logic of their position that they should think that. Other experiences which we acknowledge to be wholly subjective - love, for example - are of transcendent importance to us, to the point that we will even die for them. “Not objectively true” does not mean or imply “not important”; it never has meant or implied that.
Memento Mori wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:58 amWe do need a method for collective decision-making, but we need one which is subject to the minimum limits necessary to ensure that "wrong" answers are not reached. The concept of human rights is part of an attempt to do this, but when the concrete foundation of human rights - the idea that they are objectively true and inherent to man by virtue of the fact of his humanity and cannot be taken away - is replaced with one of sand that says they should only apply at a moment in time because people happen to believe they should (the implication being that this is subject to constant flux) then this fails. The Western view of morality, rights etc. is fundamentally based, in practice, on Judeo and particularly Christian principles. This is not to say that Christian teaching is followed, but rather that the framework and thought process is still being used. However this is being undermined in the manner which I have detailed, and in time the contradictions will cause it to totally collapse (perhaps not forever), to be replaced by what?
Well, Judeo-Christian moral thinking is in turn heavily influenced by Greek moral thinking, which was largely secular. And of course you can base a theory of human rights on purely secular, humanist principles; many people do. Conversely you can have a dominant moral theory which is very explicitly Christian but which pays little regard to the notion of human rights; historical examples abound.

We’re back to the error you pointed to earlier - ironically, having pointed out the error in your preceding paragraph I think you risk committing it yourself in this paragraph. The fact that people deny or doubt the objective reality of human dignity and the theory of human rights which it supports does not suggest that they will regard human dignity or human rights as unimportant.
Memento Mori wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:58 am In practice, (even if it is said otherwise) all these debates run on the fumes and framework of the idea that there is an objectively correct answer to these questions because this is the way it has been done for several thousand years. Without a philosophy that supports this framework it will collapse, as it has already in some areas. This is a central point I would make in response to the question of "in practice does the existence of objective value matter?". I think it most definitely does in all circumstances, but the "damage" of its denial is limited by the aforementioned framework, and will be amplified many-fold when that disappears.
Here are three statements:

1. Objective moral truth exists.

2. I cannot know objective moral truths, in the sense of having empirical reasons that compel me to accept them; I can only make faith-based statements about them.

3. I cannot prove objective moral truths; if I fail to persuade others to share my faith then I have no alternative but to accept that they do not.

There is no contradiction between the three statements; it is possible to assent to all three.

And, when it comes to discussion in the public square, the last two statement are the significant ones. If I accept statements 2 and 3, then it doesn’t matter whether or not I also accept statement 1. Statements 2 and 3 set parameters within which shared moral discourse has to take place. Thus I not only can but must make shared moral decisions with people, some of whom do not share the same understanding of objective moral truth as I do. It makes little difference whether they have a different understanding of what objective moral truth is, or whether they do not accept the concept at all; the only relevant point is that they do not share my understanding.

I suggest the discussion in the public square has to proceed on the basis not of what is objectively morally true but, as I have hinted already, on the basis of what is important to us. For functional, effective shared moral decision-making we much explore what we hold together to be important. This is true regardless of our differing beliefs about objective moral truth.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#61

Post by Memento Mori »

Peregrinus wrote: Wed Dec 22, 2021 4:07 am Pretty much the entire history of Europe in the seventeenth century suggests otherwise. Indeed, what brought the wars of religion to an end was (a) a recognition that people who agree there is an ultimately objectively correct answer to a question often don’t and can’t agree on what that answer is, and (b) a weary acceptance of the secular principal that people who believe in different answers must each be allowed to live according to their beliefs.
Every field of investigative endeavor suggests that knowing there is an answer to a question is a 'helpful' factor that encourages investigation. Time will tell if our current trajectory will result in better. The 20th century, when the thinking I am criticising really took hold, did not go too well.

That secular principle has not been accepted anywhere - people are only allowed to live according to their beliefs within a very narrow framework of accepted truths.
You’re overlooking persuasion, appeals to reason, appeals to empathy, appeals to experience, etc. Ethical discourse does take place between people of differing views, and people do sometimes change their views. Attempting to change people’s views by force, however, rarely succeeds.

These are all methods of argument, not a foundation for an argument, certainly if there is not ultimate appeal to objective truth as to the value of these factors. I never said people who deny objective value are incapable of argument. You seem to have misread what I have written, I never said that moral questions and such are unimportant to those who deny objective value, in fact I said the opposite. The issue I raised is that the foundation of their idea and impetus for their actions is not an understanding or claim that it is objectively true, but it is a whim, merely the fact that they like their idea, by definition. The point I was making is that the rejection of objective truth matters because people who reject it don't just take their ball and go home.

You might well say that moral ideas such as empathy, or even reason should be a decisive factor - why? We may apply our reason and endeavor to utilise our intellect to arrive at answers to issues - but there must be something upon which these are based, something solid to work around. Many of us believe that reason, empathy etc. are good starting points, but if there is no objective value in these things, then this need not be the case. I would regard reason as a good thing, the subjugation of issues to rational thought and not making base emotional decisions. I have reasons for thinking this, mainly that the use of the rational mind is a good thing (and indeed an obligation). I also believe that recourse to our conscience and efforts to understand what it is saying in as clear a way as possible is essential. This is based on a belief that ones conscience is how the natural law is apprehended within the mind of the individual (albeit it is infracted by the mind) and it should inform the will. However this is not a necessary belief, and if one is wedded to the ascendant philosophy today, some form of materialist scientism, ones conscience does not actually exist and is rather illusionary, along with free will and all our moral impulses, and sundry other things, are socially constructed. Great evil can be justified by recourse to "reason", it is clear we need more.

Much of what you refer to as to how arguments are made rest upon the framework I mentioned - empathy is good, rationality is good, persuasion is necessary and good etc.

I did not say anything about changing peoples views by force, I said that the justification for the imposition of these ideas on society can only be based on force and/or popularity, it cannot be justified by saying that it is "truth". I can say that the abuse of children is wrong, objectively wrong - i.e. it was, is and always will be wrong even if a majority think otherwise. If someone thinks otherwise they are wrong and this is the justification for imposing laws and force (democratically) on people who break these laws. An appeal to absolute truth, to natural law. If I can't say that this is objectively wrong, then what I am saying is not that "I think it is wrong", but rather "I think we should treat this action as if it were wrong". The justification for this position is, ultimately, my mere thinking of it and if enough people share it, it carries the day. But this works both ways and here is the danger. If the idea that people should only be subject to "the truth" (even if the understanding is wrong) is replaced with the idea that people should, or can, be subject to an ideology, an idea justified merely by someone holding it, all bets are off.
I suppose you can say that, in a democracy, all these things are ultimately a reliance on popularity - you try to change people’s views about some issue so that a majority will support the policy you favour. But that would still be your aim if you were trying to change people’s views by persuading them that your view was objectively correct. You would still be hoping to persuade enough people of this to make your preferred policy electorally popular.
Do you think that the popularity of an idea and the resultant state force behind it is enough to justify it? This is what I am talking about here - the justification of imposing it upon others, and whether it is "good". If this is reduced to a mere numbers game, and laws and impositions justified not on the basis that it is believed that they are true but on their popularity (ubermensch will too perhaps) you cannot say that a law is unjust, merely that you think it should be regarded as such and that this position is as valid as the opposite.
The opposite is indeed the case. The error you are pointing at here is the assumption that, if people doubt or deny the reality of objective moral truth, they must therefore think that moral questions are unimportant. They clearly do not think that; nor is it the logic of their position that they should think that. Other experiences which we acknowledge to be wholly subjective - love, for example - are of transcendent importance to us, to the point that we will even die for them. “Not objectively true” does not mean or imply “not important”; it never has meant or implied that
.
See comments above. I never said that they believe these to be unimportant. I have said the opposite, multiple times. Experiences may be subjective but their existence is not - well not for everyone, see previous comments re conscience and free will.
Well, Judeo-Christian moral thinking is in turn heavily influenced by Greek moral thinking, which was largely secular. And of course you can base a theory of human rights on purely secular, humanist principles; many people do. Conversely you can have a dominant moral theory which is very explicitly Christian but which pays little regard to the notion of human rights; historical examples abound.
Implicit in many of these positions is the idea that human rights are an objective truth.
1. Objective moral truth exists.

2. I cannot know objective moral truths, in the sense of having empirical reasons that compel me to accept them; I can only make faith-based statements about them.

3. I cannot prove objective moral truths; if I fail to persuade others to share my faith then I have no alternative but to accept that they do not.

There is no contradiction between the three statements; it is possible to assent to all three.

You are making the error of scientism here, holding that nothing can be known in the absence of empirical evidence. But that is an aside, my key point here is, again, that when you make a statement in line with the above you are advocating for something on the basis that you understand it to be true. You are not saying that your idea should be accepted and acted upon as if it were true, with a fundamental viewpoint that it cannot be true. It is justified by an appeal to truth, not your mere thinking it.
And, when it comes to discussion in the public square, the last two statement are the significant ones. If I accept statements 2 and 3, then it doesn’t matter whether or not I also accept statement 1. Statements 2 and 3 set parameters within which shared moral discourse has to take place. Thus I not only can but must make shared moral decisions with people, some of whom do not share the same understanding of objective moral truth as I do. It makes little difference whether they have a different understanding of what objective moral truth is, or whether they do not accept the concept at all; the only relevant point is that they do not share my understanding.
Yes, it does matter. Even as you have formulated the statements, 2 and 3 contain reference to objective truth rendering them nonsense if 1 is not accepted. Implicit in 2 and 3 is the understanding that there is an objective truth, that you believe your position to be true. With no objective truth you cannot claim to believe they are true, and I see no reason why people who deny objective truth must participate in moral discourse with a prerequisite that they accept objective truth exists, just that it cannot be "known or proven".
I suggest the discussion in the public square has to proceed on the basis not of what is objectively morally true but, as I have hinted already, on the basis of what is important to us. For functional, effective shared moral decision-making we much explore what we hold together to be important. This is true regardless of our differing beliefs about objective moral truth.
This is again just a reference to our preexisting framework, one that is ultimately based on objective truth and natural law. Abandoning truth in favour of what we deem "important" would seem most unwise, as it is based on the idea that what we deem important today, concepts such as human rights, empathy, life, dignity etc. etc. (all informed by a historic understanding of natural law) will and/or must remain important. But this does not seem necessarily the case, in the medium term at least. You or I might regard the idea that human life is precious and should be protected is an objective truth. Almost all discussions around life issues are framed around this central idea (abortion and such debates often revolve around what is a human life, the weighing of one against another, it is rare that someone just says that human life should not be protected at all) but this need not be the case. Why should human life not be viewed on the same terms of that of an animal?

My closing point is this, that given mans conscience is ultimately informed by the natural law there is hope that it would ultimately reassert itself in time and overcome any ideological infraction - but much damage can be done in the meantime. Turning off the light to scrabble around in the dark is a regressive step for humanity.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#62

Post by Mr Daniel F. O'Leary »

I think Memento Mori (and others) would enjoy the YouTube channel Whatifalthist, going by this thread.

He started off doing Alternate History videos, but now does videos studying different civilizations, general history and making predictions for the future, while discussing topics like the one in this thread in some of his videos.
I find it a very interesting channel, even if I don't agree with everything he says.
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Re: Is there such a thing as "Objective Value"?

#63

Post by Memento Mori »

Bishop Barron has been conducting an interesting series on thinkers that he believes are key to the situation we find ourselves in today. His latest is on Sartre and is worth a watch as it touches on many of the points discussed in this thread and the culture of self invention.

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